Questions Without Answers

Scriptural Refutation of

"213 Brainless Questions Without Answers" by Gary Spamereault

Author's note: The purpose of this outline is to expose the false teachings of universalist's, specifically, this outline that is frequently used by universalist's across various Christian bulletin boards across the www. The scriptural refuation(s) are shown in red for ease of visual distinction.---Don C. Hewey

Below, is a list of 213 questions that will help to clarify God's plan of salvation as set forth in the Holy Bible, so that when questions are asked, correct answers can be given. To those holding a limited view of God's plan of salvation, they are truly Questions Without Answers, but, to those who rely on God's Word, the answers become apparent as His truth is revealed to them.
The questions were written by A. C. Thomas and appeared in a book by E. H. Lake, entitled "The Key to Truth".
Now the Questions:

As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)   Only those saved by the blood of Jesus Christ can truly indeed love His enemies. Apart from Jesus Christ, we can do nothing. (John 15:5)

If God loves His enemies, will He punish them more than will be for their good? God's love for every single created being does not save, for all have sinned (Romans 3:10, 3:23) and all have fallen short of the glory of God. God righteously punishes those that refused the free gift of salvation for they have no excuse (Romans 1:20). Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

Would endless punishment be for the good of any being? Eternal damnation is the righteousness of God(2Thess 1:6, Psalm 94:20), for God cannot sin and cannot lie. An unjust false balance is an abomination as well as not judging sin. (Proverbs 11:1, 16:11, 20:23, et al.) Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love?   God loves all of His creation. But all have sinned. God cannot be in the presence of sin. Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33) Absolutely false. God loves all of His creation (John 3:16, 1John 2:2) so much that He sent His Son to die on the cross for our sins, even while we were are still sinners! Mankind sinned. God cannot sin. The problem is man and his sinful nature. Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

As "love thinketh no evil," can God design the ultimate evil of a single soul? (1 Cor. 13:5) Absolutely not. God's love is perfect beyond human comprehension. God does not force everyone to love Him and confess Him and LORD and Saviour, therefore the fault is with mankind. Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

As "love worketh no ill," can God inflict, or cause, or allow to be inflicted, an endless ill? (Rom. 13:10)   All mankind throughout scripture, from Cain to those in the tribulation, choose to turn away from God. Some will seek to hide from the presence of God during the tribulation! Is that God's will? Absolutely not.

As we are forbidden to be overcome by evil, can we safely suppose that God will be overcome by evil? (Rom. 12:21) 1Cor 1:25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men. 2 Cor 12:9 "...for my strength is made perfect in weakness." All of God's attributes are infinite in nature. God cannot sin because He is infinitely righteous.

Would not the infliction of endless punishment prove that God HAD been overcome by evil? Endless punishment is the power of God! Since all of God's attributes are endless, infinite and never ceasing, God can never been in the presence of sin. Sin separates man from God (Isaiah 59:2, Proverbs 15:29).

If man does wrong in returning evil for evil, would not God do wrong if He was to do the same? No, because God gives all of His creation free will. Do you not believe 2 Peter 2:10 "...self-willed..."? No, because only God is omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent. God see's everything done in public and private. Only God can judge righteously because God is only light. Man does wrong by returning evil for evil, because how can one that is evil, judge evil??? Romans 3:8 And not [rather], (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just.

Would not endless punishment be the return of evil for evil? The wicked cannot understand the judgment of God (Daniel 12:10). The wicked are asking for judgment from God and speak evil about God(Isaiah 32:6). God punishes the unrepentant hardened heart, for He has no other choice. Jesus said, that we shall reap what we sow. Deut. 4:25 "...and shall do evil in the sight of the LORD thy God, to provoke him to anger:..."   Pro 8:13 "The fear of the LORD [is] to hate evil:..."

As we are commanded "to overcome evil with good," may we not safely infer that God will do the same? (Rom. 12:21) The "we" is referring to only Christians and not those of a reprobate mind that cannot distinguish good from evil. A humble and contrite heart before the LORD will obtain forgiveness from Him (1John1:9). God will not do the same to unbelievers for they will not accept the free gift of salvation.

Would the infliction of endless punishment be overcoming evil with good? Man reaps what he sows. Acts 3:14 But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer tobe granted unto you; Hasn't this same question already been asked several times already? See the above 5 answers.

If God hates the sinner, does the sinner do wrong in hating Him? Absolutely yes! Who can anyone hate a righteous loving just God??? God is only executing righteous judgment upon those that reap what they sow. God is not mocked. Isaiah 32:6 For the vile person will speak villany, and his heart will work iniquity, to practise hypocrisy, and to utter error against the LORD, to make empty the soul of the hungry, and he will cause the drink of the thirsty to fail.

Is God a changeable being? (James 1:17) No. Duh.

If God loves His enemies now, will he not always love them? His love never fails, but the sin of unbelief separates one from God for all eternity. God gives us all free will (2Peter 2:10) to choose evil or good. By choosing to not accept God, one is asking for damnation. God must execute judgment, even on those whom He loves.Being saved from the eternal wrath of God and being loved by God are two different things. Isaiah 55:6 Seek ye the LORD while he may be found, call ye upon him while he is near:

Is it just for God to be "kind to the evil and unthankful," in their present life? (Luke 6:35) Again the same brain dead accusations against God. See the above answers. God is not willing that ANY should perish...(2Peter 3:9)... but not all will accept this free gift of salvation. Neh 9:33 Howbeit thou [art] just in all that is brought upon us; for thou hast done right, but we have done wickedly:

Would it be unjust for God to be kind to all men in a future state? Absolutely yes. Not all men will accept this free gift of salvation. Does God force Himself to everyone? Did God force Lucifer and his angels to fall from heaven? Did God force Adam and Eve to eat of the fruit? The wages of sin is death. Literally. God said it and He was not joking!

If all men justly deserve endless punishment, will not those who are saved, be saved unjustly? "All" men I am assuming you are grouping unbelievers with the believers in Christ. Neh 9:33 Howbeit thou [art] just in all that is brought upon us; for thou hast done right, but we have done wickedly: Matthew 5:45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he

maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
If God "will by no means clear the guilty," by what means can just punishment be evaded? (Ex. 34:7) An unbeliever cannot escape the judgment of God. Scripture clearly shows that all are given equal opportunity for accepting this free gift of eternal life and are without excuse (Romans 1:20). Matthew 5:45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.

As no man can measure endless punishment to his neighbor, will endless punishment be measured to him? (Luke 4:38)   A very misleading vague open ended question. Who is this "no man"? A believer or unbeliever? No man whatsoever can judge righteously, because all mankind is still in a corruptible body and is still in the flesh. As a Christian, we are filled with the Holy Spirit, but still sin. A sinner cannot judge another sinner. satan cannot cast out satan.

Would it be merciful in God to inflict endless punishment? -- that is, merciful to the sufferer? Answered already many times above. Yes, it is truly merciful for God to inflict endless punishment on those that love their sin! God cannot be in the presence of sin.

Can that be just which is not merciful? Yes. God must punish all presence of sin because there is no darkness in God whatsoever. If anyone rejects the only perfect sacrifice paid on the cross by Jesus Christ, there remains no other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26). Time does not wash away sin, nor does punishment, nor does paying with money. Only the blood of Jesus Christ and there is no other name given (Acts 4:12).

Do not cruelty and injustice go hand in hand? Absolutely not. Hebrews 10:26. God will not be mocked for you will reap what you sow(Galatians 6:7). God must judge all manner of sin.

Can that be merciful which is not just? No. All mercy is just. God sends His rain upon both the just and the unjust (Matthew 5:45) and is not a respector of persons(Deut 10:17, 16:19, Romans 2:11) and having respect for persons is sin (James 2:9). Mankind has no excuse for refusing the free gift of salvation, for this has appeared to all creation (Romans 1:20).

Does divine justice demand the infliction of pain from which mercy recoils? Yes. For the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23). Galatians 6:7 Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap.

Does divine mercy require any thing that justice refuses to grant? No.

If the demands of divine justice are opposed to the requirements of mercy, is not God divided against Himself? Ridiculous question! God did not sin, man did. When man sinned, death entered in by sin(Romans 5:12).   Mankind has a problem with death, God does not for only God is immortal and incorruptible (1Tim 6:16, 1:17). Man is mortal and corruptible (1Cor 15:42-54). God must punish all presence of sin because there is no darkness in God whatsoever. If anyone rejects the only perfect sacrifice paid on the cross by Jesus Christ, there remains no other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26). Time does not wash away sin, nor does punishment, nor does paying with money. Only the blood of Jesus Christ and there is no other name given (Acts 4:12).

If the requirements of mercy are opposed to the demands of the justice of God, can His kingdom stand? -- (Mark 3:24) Answered above already. God's kingdom will stand forever. Why? Because God cannot sin. It is impossible. God must therefore separate Himself from the presence of sin by those that have willfully rejected the only perfect sacrifice.

If the justice and mercy of God are any way opposed, do they "keep the unity of the spirit in the bonds of peace?' Yes. God will always show His mercy until the day of judgment when sin must be judged for what it is: DEATH. God is not the God of the dead, but of the living (Mat22:32, Mark 12:27).

If justice and mercy are opposed to their requirements can Deity be a just God and a Savior? -- (Isaiah 14:21). Redundant question rephrased over and over again. Read the above answers.

If "a God all mercy is a God unjust," would not a God all justice be a God unmerciful? No. God will always show His mercy until the day of judgment when sin must be judged for what it is: DEATH. God is not the God of the dead, but of the living (Mat22:32, Mark 12:27).

Is there any such thing in God as unjust mercy, or unmerciful justice? Absolutely not. There is no verse in the bible that teaches that, so you are quite mistaken, among other things.

Is there any such thing in God as just cruelty, or merciful injustice? Yes. If you define "cruelty" as punishment for sin, then the answer is yes. God does not force Himself on people.

If you had sufficient power would you not deliver all men from sin? No. And God already has shown His divine perfect absolute mercy on mankind by sending His Son. Romans 5:8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.

Are you more merciful than the God Who made you? Absolutely no. God's creation can never be greater than The Creator, therefore, God's mercy is the greatest. Job 4:17 Shall mortal man be more just than God? shall a man be more pure than his maker?

'Can a woman forget her sucking child?' Yes, when the child willfully walk's away from the mother. God cannot be a part of sin and those who willfully turn down the free gift of salvation will be eternally separated from God (John 8:24, Romans 6:23). Isaiah 45:9 Woe unto him that striveth with his Maker! [Let] the potsherd [strive] with the potsherds of the earth. Shall the clay say to him that fashioneth it, What makest thou? or thy work, He hath no hands?

Is the Creator of human sympathy less benevolent than the creature? Absolutely no. God's creation can never be greater than The Creator, therefore, God's mercy is the greatest. Job 4:17 Shall mortal man be more just than God? shall a man be more pure than his maker?

If God WOULD save all men, but CANNOT, is He infinite in power? God is unchanging and is always infinite in power, righteousness, mercy, strength, wisdom, etc. It is not written in God's word that all men will be saved, but it is written that all SHOULD not perish. Scripture does not say that all WILL come to repentance (1 Peter 3:9).

If God CAN save all men, but WILL NOT, is He infinite in goodness? Yes, all of God's attributes are infinite. It is the sin of mankind that is not good. God cannot be a part of any sin whatsoever. God does not force salvation unto all creation. God did not force Lucifer to fall from heaven, it was Lucifer HIMSELF (Ezekiel 28:17) that corrupted himself. Not God. Likewise with Adam and Eve. Both were created in perfection, completely immortal until they chose to sin which brought forth death.

Does God DESIRE the salvation of all men? (1 Tim. 2:3-4) Yes, of course, but there is a big difference between "all" will come to repentance versus "all" should come to repentance. God did not desire for sin to enter into the Garden of Eden, nor it is God's desire that Christian's still sin either. God is never desirous of sin.

As God is righteous, must not the desire for universal salvation be a RIGHTEOUS desire? Of course it is a righteous desire. Does this prove that everyone is saved? No, of course not. God did not desire for sin to enter into the Garden of Eden, nor it is God's desire that Christian's still sin either. God is never desirous of sin.

Is it true, that "the desire of the righteous shall be granted?" -- (Prov. 10:24) Yes. "All" are not righteous however and that is the confusion of universalists. Was the desire of Pharoah granted? King Herod? Satan desires to be higher than God (Isaiah 14:12-16), is this going to be granted as well?????? No. Because they are not righteous. Duh.

Did God design universal salvation when He created man? Salvation from what? Sin did not exist in the Garden of Eden! Everything God created up until the entrance of sin upon mankind was pronounced "good" by God. Genesis 1:31 And God saw ***every thing*** that he had made, and, behold, [it was] ***very good***.

Will God carry His original design into execution? Yes. His righteous design will be executed. Unrighteous will be destroyed eternally and separated from His presence.

Can finite man frustrate the purposes of the Almighty? Yes.   Just ask Lucifer and his angels if you ever get a chance to. It is the freewill of mankind that God has blessed all of His creation with. Freewill to choose. We have the freedom to choose good or evil each and every day of our lives. Temptation exists everyday. Temptation is not a sin, but giving into temptation is a sin.

Is every individual under obligation to be thankful for his existence? Yes, because all of God's creation were created for His pleasure and all should give thanksgiving to The Creator. However, all will not. Some will even choose to continue blaspheming His Blessed Name forever. (Revelation 16:11).

Will this obligation eternally continue? No. Because all presence of sin will be eternally separated from the presence of God.

Can any one be thankful for that which, on the whole, is not a blessing? Yes. Jesus promised all of his disciples that they would be persecuted for His namesake. No where in scripture does it say that a Christian's walk was going to be easy, but that after our trials and periods of chastening, we would enjoy blessings. Too many verses to quote here.

If any one be rendered endlessly miserable, will he be still under obligation to thank God for existence? No. For what reason? For he will be eternally separated from the presence of God so what good would that do? It is an exercise in vanity.

Would endless misery benefit the Almighty, as the INFLICTOR? Absolutely yes. Because punishing the presence of sin is God's righteousness. His hate for sin is greater than His love for us, otherwise He would have never sent His Son to pay such a huge price to die on the cross. If Jesus Christ were to have never paid for all of the sins, no matter how great the love of God is, there would still be the presence of unpaid for sin and that would cause us to be eternally separated from God. Love does not forgive sins, the blood of Jesus Christ does.

Would endless misery benefit the saints, as SPECTATORS? Yes. Psalm 59:8 But thou, O LORD, shalt laugh at them; thou shalt have all the heathen in derision. Psalm 37:13 The Lord shall laugh at him: for he seeth that his day is coming. Psalm 59:5 Thou therefore, O LORD God of hosts, the God of Israel, awake to visit all the heathen: be not merciful to any wicked transgressors. Selah.

Would endless misery benefit the sinner, as the SUFFERER? No. Is God obligated to benefit the sinner? Didn't God already give this free gift? Did the sinner turn this free gift away?

If endless punishment be the "wages of sin," could the sinner ever receive payment in full? (Rom. 6:23)   There is no "if," it is fact that the wages of sin is death. There are no if's and's or but's about it. It is promised in God's word. The sinner must receive this free gift before he is judged, because it is appointed unto man to only die once, then face judgment. One judgment.

As man is a finite being, can he commit an infinite sin? Yes. Man is committing infinite sin because man cannot by himself make a satisfactory attonement for his sin. Because man is sinning against an infinite God and God give's mankind two choices: to repent and accept the only free gift of salvation or to accept the wages of sin which is death. This is not a trick question.

If man cannot commit an infinite sin, can he deserve endless punishment? Your question is false and therefore cannot be answered scripturally. Man does commit infinite sin because his sin cannot be paid for by himself!

If one sin be infinite, can a million be any more? No. It only took one sin for Adam and Eve to receive death and to lose their immortal bodies. They were also banished from the Garden of Eden. The ground was cursed as well. One sin was all it took.

If ONE sin be NOT infinite, can a million of sins amount to an infinite sin? Your question is false and therefore cannot be answered scripturally. Man does commit infinite consequences of sin because his sin cannot be paid for by himself! Hence, this is eternal separation from God.

If sin be infinite, can one sin be greater than the other? The wages of sin is infinite, but there are differences in degrees of God's judgment.   There are in scripture sins that are punished more severely than others such as sexual sins because it is the only sin committed against one's body. Devouring a widow's home will result in a greater damnation(Matt 23:14, Luke 20:47 et. al.). There are varying level's of damnation but the end result is still the same: one is still eternally separated from God, whether or not the damnation is more severe than another man.

If sin be infinite, can it be true that, "where sin abounded grace did MUCH MORE abound?" --(Rom. 5:20) That verse only applies to believer's in Jesus Christ. Christian's still sin because we are still trapped inside of a fleshly body. Until a believer receives this resurrected immortal body(1Cor 15:42-54) then one will still struggle with his sinful nature. Therefore, God's grace upon one of His believer's is given much grace.

If sin be infinite, can it ever be finished or brought to an end? Of course, otherwise you are accusing God of dying on the cross in vain! (Galatians 2:21).

If ONE sin deserves an eternity of punishment, how much punishment will TEN sins deserve? There are in scripture sins that are punished more severely than others such as sexual sins because it is the only sin committed against one's body. Devouring a widow's home will result in a greater damnation(Matt 23:14, Luke 20:47 et. al.). There are varying level's of damnation but the end result is still the same: one is still eternally separated from God, whether or not the damnation is more severe than another man.

Do you ardently DESIRE the salvation of all men? No. Because the salvation of all men would make God a liar.

Is it true that God "openeth his hand and satisfieth the desire of every living thing?" -- (Ps. 145:16) That is a loaded question. Not all will accept God opening His hand. God cannot cause one to sin, therefore, these desires are only righteous desires according to His will. Not all mankind desire to be in the presence of God. Ask Lucifer, King Herod, Pharoah, Judas Iscariot, King Agrippa, on and on and on....

Do you fervently PRAY for the salvation of all men? (1 Tim. 2:1) No. I pray for the salvation of those who have not passed on into eternity as of yet. I pray for every man, woman and child who does not have a saving faith in the only LORD and Saviour who can offer eternal life---JESUS CHRIST.

Do you pray in FAITH, nothing doubting? (James 1:6) Yes I do, how about you? In addition, how can one pray to God if one does not believe in God? All do not pray to God sad to say.

Are you aware, "that whatsoever is not of faith is sin?" -- (Rom 14:23) Yes, but are you aware of it? In addition, who or what is your faith in: An eternal God or an eonian god?

Would God require us to pray for all men, and to pray in faith, unless He intends all men should be saved? All men in what context? How can one pray for men that have already died? Duh! Once one dies, judgment follows. If one is not found written in the book of life, then the lake of fire is their eternal destiny. Read it, believe it and repent.

If you believe endless misery to be the truth of God, why should you desire and pray that it may prove false? I believe that every single word of God is pure(Proverbs 4:4) and is without error(Psalms 12:6-7). I believe God's word contains eternal life and so should you, otherwise you are wasting both your time and mine. God is not mocked.

Can the pleasure of the Almighty be contrary to his determinate will? No, because it isn't.

Would the infliction of endless misery afford pleasure to the Deity? Psalm 59:8 But thou, O LORD, shalt laugh at them; thou shalt have all the heathen in derision. Psalm 37:13 The Lord shall laugh at him: for he seeth that his day is coming. Psalm 59:5 Thou therefore, O LORD God of hosts, the God of Israel, awake to visit all the heathen: be not merciful to any wicked transgressors. Selah.

Can God be glorified by that which gives Him no pleasure? Of course! God is glorified each and every single day! God destroys all of which that gives Him no pleasure and sin is the top of His list!

As Jesus "tasted death for every man," can it be true that "the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hands," if a part are never saved? (Heb. 2:9) Yes it is true. The payment for sin for all of mankind is now available freely to those that will receive this gift. The key word here is RECEIVE. Scripture doesn't say those that are forced to believe. By now, after going through this questionaire, you should have a very good grasp at God's holy nature. If not, you are in dire straits.

If God "declares the end from the beginning," can the final destiny of mankind be contrary to His will? Because of mankind's freewill. Adam and Eve had freewill to chose between good and evil and we are all decendants of Adam and Eve, are we not? Then what makes you so different from Adam and Eve then?

Can endless misery be brought about contrary to the GOOD PLEASURE of the Almighty? You are repeating yourself again here. This question has already been answered above.

Can God WILL anything contrary to His knowledge? Again, you misunderstand scripture. 2 Peter 3:9 does not say that all WILL come to repentance, but that all SHOULD come to repentance. 'Will' and 'should' are two different words.

Did God know when He created man, that a part of His creatures would be endlessly miserable? Yes. Only God is omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent. His knows everything for He created everything. God did not create robots, He created real live living tissue called flesh. This flesh has free will. When this flesh sins, it dies as was promised by God to Adam and Eve. God did not lie for Adam and Eve both died.

If God, when He created, did not know the result of creation, is He infinite in knowledge? Your "if" is incorrect and unscriptural. For He knew us in our mother womb, even before!

Power is the ability to do: is knowledge simply the ability to know? No.

If God knew when He created man, that some would be eternally wretched, did He not will this to be their doom? Sin did not exist in the Garden of Eden! Everything God created up until the entrance of sin upon mankind was pronounced "good" by God. Genesis 1:31 And God saw ***every thing*** that he had made, and, behold, [it was] ***very good***. It is the sin of mankind that is not good. God cannot be a part of any sin whatsoever. God does not force salvation unto all creation. God did not force Lucifer to fall from heaven, it was Lucifer HIMSELF (Ezekiel 28:17) that corrupted himself. Not God. Likewise with Adam and Eve. Both were created in perfection, completely immortal until they chose to sin which brought forth death.

If God willed the endless misery of a part of His creatures, why is it said that "he will have all men to be saved?" -- (1 Tim. 2:4) This question is getting very very old. This has already been answered several other times in this question list.

If the Scriptures should testify, that God "will have all men to be damned," could we safely infer that a part might be saved? But the scriptures do not say this. All men who will believe and accept this free gift.   Not all have this faith. All creation has had the good news preached to them. Matthew 28:30, Mark 16:15-16.

If the Scriptures testify, that God "will have all men to be saved," can we safely infer that a part may be damned? Yes of course. God's will is for everyone to be saved, but all are not saved therefore, God does not alway's get His way. This is to His glory. When a Christian commit's sin, is that God's will?????

If God made an endless hell before He created man, did He know there would be any use for it? Scripture does not say that hell was created before He created man. For sin was not entered into. Yes of course God knew that there would be use for it.

If God knew there would be use for an endless hell, must He not have created some men for endless misery? Yes of course God knew.

If God made an endless hell, was it included in the works which He pronounced "very good?" -- (Gen. 1:31) No, because satan had not fallen yet, for all was very good.

If there be an endless hell, and it was not made before the creation of men, when was it made? Between the fifth and sixth day, angels were created. Angels existed before mankind did (Gen 2:7) Lucifer and his angels fell from heaven sometime after Genesis 2:25 and before 3:1. Lucifer became the serpent who was evil. The serpent lied to Eve and that is the first sin of the spirit, but not of the flesh. Eve committed the first sin of the flesh.

If there be a personal devil, who made him? God created all angels and they were all very good Gen 1:31. But Lucifer corrupted himself (Ezekiel 28:11-19). God did not corrupt him because scripture says that lucifer was created in perfection.

Can there be any such thing as sin in heaven? No and that is why any angel that sinned was cast away from the presence of God into hell awaiting judgment.

If there was sin in heaven, many not sin be committed there again? Scripture does not say that sin was committed in heaven, nor does scripture ever say that sin will enter into heaven at any time.

If an angel of light became a devil, was not Paul in error, when he said Satan is transformed into an angel of light? -- (2 Cor 11:14) No, because satan is given the power by God to deceive and fool those who do not believe Him and want to believe a lie. God gives them the desires of their hearts(Romans 1:20-30).

As sin presupposes temptation of some sort, who tempted a holy angel to sin? Free will. Angels were created with free will just as Adam and Eve. All were created in perfection. Do you not believe this?

If an angel could sin without a devil to tempt him, may we not sin without a devil to tempt us? No. Because we all have sinful nature due to Adam and Eve. The devil tempts all. Lucifer was higher in power and rank than the other angels in heaven(Ezekiel 28:11-19) and led all angels in worship.

If a holy angel was tempted to sin by surrounding evil, is heaven a holy place? Do you not believe scripture? If you do not, then why are you asking these idiotic stupid questions? If you do believe in scripture, then why do you ask such nonsensical garbage? Heaven is holy, whether or not you believe in this or not.

If an angel was tempted by evil passions, could he have been holy? Scripture does not say that angels were tempted with evil passions, but that lucifer led them into rebellion against God. You are adding to the word of God. All creation was very good according to God's word.   Live it, believe it or deny it.

If an angel became a devil by sinning, was Adam's the original sin? Adam's sin was the first sin of the flesh. Angels are only spirits. Angels have no redemption for their sins(Hebrews 2:10-14, Romans 8:3) because they are only spirit and they were also in heaven without the presence of sin. They are without excuse because they beheld the glory of God and everything in heaven, but they chose to fall with lucifer. Angels do believe in one God (James 2:19), but they chose to rebell against God before sin was ever in existence. That was clearly against the will of God because God created them in perfection.

If Adam became mortal (that is, subject to death,) by sinning, must he not have been created immortal? Yes, as I have stated about 5 times already.

If Adam had been created immortal, could he ever have died? No.

If Adam sinned without inheriting total depravity, why should inborn depravity be assigned as the cause of our sins? Your 'if' is wrong again. God told him that if one should eat of the tree of knowledge, you shall surely die. God was not joking around now wasn't He?

Would there be any more impropriety in imputing MY sins to Adam, than in imputing HIS sins to ME? Yes there would be, because you are a descendant from Adam, therefore your assumption is false. Adam HAD an immortal body, you did not at any time. Big difference.

If men are totally depraved by nature, must not children be so likewise? Men are not totally depraved by nature for God gives them the knowledge of His existence (Romans 1:20). All of His creation have knowledge of Him. Man is depraved according to their inability to save themselves from the wrath of God.

If children be totally depraved, is it true, that "of such is the kingdom of heaven?" -- (Mark 10:14) Again, mankind is not completely totally depraved (Romans 1:20). All creation knows about God's existence as evidenced by the stars in the sky and everything created.

Men are to be washed from their sins. If they are totally depraved, what is there to wash? You said that they were completely totally depraved, I didn't.

If evil men and seducers "wax worse and worse," (2 Tim. 3:13), can they be totally depraved at first? You said that they were completely totally depraved, I didn't.

If human reason be "carnal and delusive," why did Jehovah say, "come now and let us REASON together?" -- (Isa. 1:18) God was speaking to only His believers in Him that have fallen away into sin.

If reason be delusive, why should some folks reason against the use of reason? And you just made my point. A non-believer cannot reason beyond delusion. Therefore Isa 1:18 is only referring to His believers. Thank you kindly.

Can an effect exist without a cause sufficiently powerful to produce it? No.

If "we love God because he first loved us," is it true that we must first love HIM before He will love us? No. That is faulty reasoning as scripture says that God first loved us.

If "we love God because he first loved us," is it not plain that He loved US when we did not love HIM? Yes, it is very plain.

If God loved US when we did not love HIM, is not our love to Him the EFFECT (and not the CAUSE) of His love to US? Yes. 1John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment. He that feareth is not made perfect in love.

1John 4:19 We love him, because he first loved us.
John 16:27 For the Father himself loveth you, because ye have loved me, and have believed that I came out from God.
Was it consistent with divine justice, to love us, when we did not love Him? Yes.

If God once loved us, will not that love eternally continue? Yes, but only for those that belong to Him. 1 John 4:19 uses the word "us"---not everyone forever. God does not love satan. God hates evil. Romans 8:8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. James 4:4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.

If the love of God is the cause which produces love in man, can anger and wrath produce the same effect? Not all mankind has perfect love, only those that belong to Christ (1John 4:18).

Is it the revealed will of God that all men should be saved? Yes, all men SHOULD be saved, but not all WILL be saved. It is God's will that no one, especially Christians, should still be sinning, but they still do. It was God's will every single angel was created in perfection and none were lost, up until Lucifer led a rebellion and war in heaven. Then God lost some of His angels to satan. That wasn't God's will. It was God's will for all angels to be in heaven with Him, otherwise, who did they get there in the first place!

Can God will all men to be saved, knowing that a part will be forever lost? Yes absolutely and Jesus Christ said this many times.

If God has two wills, why is double-mindedness condemned in the Scriptures? It is not double mindedness, man is doubleminded. Big difference. Man sins, God does not, remember? Is it God's will for man to sin? If it was, that would make God the author of sin, which is sin in itself.

If God has two wills, why does the Bible say, "He is of one mind?" The will and the mind are two distinct different things. Didn't Jesus reach out to the poor, the sick, the handicapped, the Jews, the Gentiles, the Romans, etc.? Did all accept Jesus Christ good news? Hardly not. Was it the will of God for all of those to be saved? ABSOLUTELY. Otherwise, what was Jesus doing sharing the gospel with all of those that were lost!

If God has a secret will, how did you gain a knowledge of it? There is no secret will of God in scripture.

Can that be a secret which has been revealed? Everything of God is written in His word or do you not believe the bible? If you do not believe every single word in the bible, then why are we having this conversation?

If God revealed His secret will to "the saints," why should they reveal it to "the wicked?" Again, false assumption leading to a false question. Haven't you read Romans 1:20 yet? There is no excuse for not knowing God.

If God under any circumstances, wills the endless misery of a human soul, in what does He differ from Satan? That is blasphemy for even suggesting that satan and God share attributes. "...for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."---John 14:30 Again, for the 50th time, it is satan that corrupted HIMSELF (Ezekiel 28:11-19), not God. God cannot sin. Lucifer led the rebellion in heaven, not God. It was God's will for all angels to be in heaven with Him, otherwise, who did they get there in the first place!

Can Jesus Christ be the Savior of any more than He actually saves? No.

Can Jesus be "the Savior of the world," (1 John 4:14), if the world is not saved by him? Because, Jesus Christ is the only Savior and there is none else (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4), and not all have faith(2Thessalonian 3:2) and without faith, it is impossible to please God (Hebrews 11:6). Those that die without faith are still in their sins and shall eternally die apart from God (Romans 6:23, John 8:24).

Is Christ, in any sense, the Savior of unbelievers? Yes, because Jesus Christ came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance and to save those that were lost (Matthew 18:11 and numerous others). But not all will believe.

If Christ be in no sense the Savior of unbelievers, why are unbelievers called upon to believe in Christ as their Savior? You said it, I didn't. Christ is the only Savior and He created all creation, therefore only He can righteously judge them.

If unbelievers are not called upon to believe in Christ as their Savior, what are they to believe? Unbelievers are still in their sin. Christ was sent to preach to those in sin, to save that which was lost (Matt. 18:11). Unbelievers are called to believe in Christ, for many are called but few are chosen. Some will believe only for a short while and fall away in unbelief.

Must not the thing to be believed, be true before it is believed? God is not a "thing," but the only living God. Only God is true and every man a liar (Romans 3:4). There is no darkness in God whatsoever. "...that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all."---1John 1:5

Must not the thing to be believed continue to be true, whether it be believed or disbelieved? God must believed in to please God. Unbelief is enmity against God. Hebrews 11:6 But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he

is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
"What if some did not believe? Shall their unbelief make the faith, [or faithfulness] of God of none effect?" -- (Rom. 3:3) No. Romans 3:4 "God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar;..."

Is it true that "God hath concluded all in unbelief that he might have mercy on all?" -- (Rom 9:32) Typo in your reference, you meant Romans 11:32. The "them" in verse 32 is Israel. 11:25 & 26 illustrate this. The Jews were blinded and the Gentiles were grafted in.

Can God be "especially the Savior of them who believe," unless He be actually the Savior of all? -- (1 Tim. 4:10) Misapplication of this verse: "1Tim 4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God,..." The Greek word for 'specially' here is exclusive of believers, not those in unbelief. Do a word study on the Greek word "malista." Especially in Acts 25:26, where only King Agrippa is judging Paul the Apostle. No one else was judging Paul except Agrippa. "Especially" in Acts 25:26 would also have to include Festus and the others in judging Paul and we clearly see in the entire chapter 25 that this is not so.

If belief and good works in this life, be essential to eternal salvation in the next, can infants be saved? Again, you said it, I didn't. No where in scripture is it stated that works are required for salvation. Only belief. (Ephesians 2:8-9 and a multitude of others). No one can add to the already perfected work done on the cross by Jesus Christ. Anything else is imperfection and an insult to the perfect one and only sacrifice (Hebrews 10:26).

Can the good actions of finite man merit an infinite reward? I am assuming you are only referring to mankind that believes: the answer is yes insofar as the good action of believing in Christ. This belief is a result of faith given by God (Ephesians 2:8) and not of ourselves, for it is a gift. Not all will respond to this calling, for many are called, but few are chosen.

Can the evil actions of finite man merit infinite punishment? Yes.

If men are saved by works, is salvation of grace? Again, false statement, false assumption.

If one man is saved by grace, why should not all be saved in like manner? All of the parable in the four gospels illustrate God reaching out to all mankind: the righteous and the unrighteous. God is not a respector of persons and Jesus Christ clearly walked that walk throughout scripture. God outstretched His hand to all of the lost, but not all accepted even the miracles that Jesus Christ did that no one had ever seen before. In fact, most of them wanted to kill Him even more. So why is this so? Man's freewill!

Is God a partial being? Yes, for God is not a respector of persons.

Can the faith of the Partialists be based in the wisdom that is "full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality?" -- (James 3:17) Yes.

Can sufficient provision be made for the salvation of all men, if some men are never saved? Yes and Jesus Christ has already provided this. There is no other Savior and no other name for salvation (Acts 4:12). No other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26).

Must not sufficient provision be sufficient to subdue the will of the creature? So you have just admitted to the existence of the freewill of man. Sufficient provision has been scripturally shown to be more than sufficient, otherwise no one in scripture would have been saved!

Is there any other way to determine the sufficiency of the means employed, than by the accomplishment of the end designed? Yes, there is. You must be able to understand and see that God had reached out to all of His creation equally, then you can fully understand the end accomplishment.

Does not the law of God require all men to love him supremely, and their neighbors as themselves? Yes. But do all men follow the law? (Romans 3:10, 23).

Is it true, that "not one jot or tittle of this law shall pass till all be fulfilled?" -- (Matt. 5:18) Yes.

Does not justice require of us the fulfilment of the law of God? Wrong wording. We cannot fulfill the law. No where in scripture does it say that man can fulfill the law! Righteousness is only by faith. Read Romans chapter 3.

Will not justice be eternally violated, if the law of God be not universally fulfilled? No. The law of God has already been perfectly absolutely fulfilled by Jesus Christ. There is no other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26).

Can they fulfil the law of love who are rendered eternally miserable? Ridiculous question and no one taught in scripture. No one apart from Christ can do anything. For apart from Him, we can do nothing. John 15:5 I am the vine, ye [are] the branches: He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without me ye can do nothing.

Can justice require the obedience of the sinner, and at the same time require his eternal disobedience? No.

If whoso "offereth praise glorifieth God," (Ps. 1:23), can He be glorified by those who have no cause to praise Him? No one can praise God unless God give's them the power to do so(John 15:5).

If any one be rendered eternally miserable, can he have any cause to praise His Maker? Absolutely not. God is not God of the dead, but of the living(Luke 20:38).

Will God ever place some of his creatures in such a situation they cannot praise him? Rev 16:11 And blasphemed the God of heaven because of their pains and their sores, and repented not of their deeds.

Do you believe that endless punishment would manifest the glory of God? Yes, unless if you do not believe the bible. 2Thessalonians 1:6 Seeing [it is] a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; Psalm 94:20 Shall the throne of iniquity have fellowship with thee, which frameth mischief by a law? Rev 18:20 Rejoice over her, [thou] heaven, and [ye] holy apostles and prophets; for God hath avenged you on her.

Can you rejoice in the hope of the glory of God? Yes of course. The bible promises this. Rev 18:20 Rejoice over her, [thou] heaven, and [ye] holy apostles and prophets; for God hath avenged you on her.

Would not the salvation of half of mankind glorify God more than the salvation of one-fourth? No. No one bit, because even if one more soul were added to the book of life that had one sin that was not forgiven, sin would enter heaven. Psalm 94:20 Shall the throne of iniquity have fellowship with thee, which frameth mischief by a law?

Would not the salvation of nine-tenths of mankind glorify God more than the salvation of one-half? Only if each and every single one were to have faith in Jesus Christ and confessing Him as LORD. Forget about 9/10's of mankind, how about 11/12 of the disciples???? Not all of the disciples were even saved! Read Psalm 109:5-20 regarding Judas.

Can we give "glory to God in the highest," without believing in the salvation of all men? Of course! Are not the angels in heaven at this very moment doing this?!?!? Luke 15:10 Likewise, I say unto you, there is joy in the presence of the angels of God over one sinner that repenteth. Psalm 148:2 Praise ye him, all his angels: praise ye him, all his hosts.

If "all have sinned, and (thus) come short of the glory of God," (Rom. 3:23), would eternal sinning mend the matter? No it would not. And your point is moot, for all sin will be burning eternally and apart from God, for sin cannot enter into the presence of God.

Shall "every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father?" -- (Philippians 2:11) Absolutely! But from where? Some in heaven which are saved, some on Earth and the rest under the Earth for those in damnation. Confessing Jesus is LORD in that context is not all made unto salvation, for:                                                                                     Luke 13:25 When once the master of the house is risen up, and hath shut to the door, and ye begin to stand without, and to knock at the door, saying, Lord, Lord, open unto us; and he shall answer and say unto you, I know you not whence ye are:

Luke 13:26 Then shall ye begin to say, We have eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets.
Luke 13:27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all [ye] workers of iniquity.
Luke 13:28 There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you [yourselves] thrust out.
Is endless misery "good tidings of great joy which shall be to all people?" Yes, for all people who are saved! Would you want heaven to be filled with those who are not washed from their sins? That would make God a sinner.

Could man be endlessly miserable without being endlessly a sinner?

Easy. God gives everyone, what they have sowed. Wages are earned, not given. Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
If sin exist eternally, can it be true that Christ was to finish the transgression, and to make and end of sin? -- (Dan. 9:34) False question and assumption. Sin is not eternal. Punishment is. And death, pain, curse, etc. is also conquered with all finality (Revelation 21:4).

As Jesus gave himself a ransom for all men, can he ever "see the travail of his soul and be satisfied," if endless misery be true? Yes, because God did everything in His power to save each and every single living soul from hell. Those that wilfully deny Him, are wilfully asking for hell (John 8:24).

Do you hope that endless misery is true? Yes, absolutely, the hotter hell is, the better it gets!

Is "faith the substance (or foundation) of things hoped for?" -- (Heb. 11:1) Hebrews 11:1 Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.   The bible say's it is and I believe it. You should too.

If endless misery be not a thing hoped for, can it be a part of the Christian faith? Contradiction in terms: those that have faith in Jesus Christ are Christians and are not damned, but have eternal life (John 3:16 and numerous others). There are some on this earth right this second that desire hell. Why are there satan worshippers?

Is it certain that one soul will be eternally lost? Ask Judas Iscariot. Ask lucifer and his angels (Matthew 25:41).

Is it certain that one soul will be saved? Yes or are you calling Jesus Christ a liar?

Is it certain that all will not be damned? Read John 3:16. Ask the thief on the cross if you have a chance to.

Is it certain that all will not be saved? See question 165. Redundant questions are getting to be tiring at this point.

Can that be certain which is not decreed? Then you are clearly denying scripture. Matthew 25:41 clearly shows the destiny of those that deny Jesus Christ.

If it be certain that one soul will be saved, must there not be a decree concerning the salvation of a definite number? Again, your application of 'if' is nonsensical. Scripture promises eternal life to those that believe and many in scripture believed. Do you not understand this simple concept yet? God already knows the exact number of those that will be saved and those damned.

If the number of the saved be definitely fixed, must not the number of the damned be equally definite? Exactly. You are starting to learn something.

If there be no certainty in relation to the final destiny of man, is not salvation a work of chance? Contradiction in your earlier questions. I distinctly mentioned already that this number of souls is already known by God in question #170.

What better is chance than Atheism? Ridiculous assumption. Clearly seen and understood by all of His creation leaves the entire creation including mankind accountable to God. Romans 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, [even] his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

If God knew, when he created, what the end of each soul would be, is not that end as certain as if it was decreed? Yes, absolutely. Only God is omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent.

Is not the merciful man always merciful to his beast? No. Because since all flesh dies, and we only die once, then face one judgment, God will judge those who are santified by His blood and also those who have asked for damnation. When anyone turns away from the free gift of salvation, they are asking for damnation. God is righteous in that He will bless them with the desires of their heart.

Will not the merciful God be always as merciful to His creatures, as the merciful man is to his beast? Merciful to His creatures that are santified---yes. Those that deny Him are asking for damnation. God will bless them with what they ask for.

Is it true that the "tender mercies of the Lord are over all his works?" -- (Ps. 145:9) Yes. We are all under the period of grace. Once Jesus Christ comes, it is in judgment and grace ends at that moment. Judgment Day is time to pay for their sins.

Is it true that the Almighty is without variableness, or the shadow of turning? Yes.

Would there be any tender mercy in the infliction of endless misery? Yes. God created all with freedom to choose between good and evil. Lucifer corrupted himself in the Garden of Eden (Ezekiel 28:11-19). Eve corrupted herself. No one made Eve eat the fruit. Men have free will(2Peter 2:10).

Are the tender mercies of the Lord like unto the tender mercies of the wicked which are cruel? This question has already been asked three previous times. Again, the LORD will give us the desires of our heart. Man has no excuse from accepting salvation (Romans 1:20) as the evidence of God is everywhere in creation. When one denys God, he is asking for damnation. God has no other choice.

If God is not the Father of sinners, why should sinners pray, saying, "Our Father, forgive us our trespasses?" Misapplication of wording. An unbeliever does not pray. A believer does. Big difference. Those that believe are washed and forgiven of their sins---past, present and future sins. read Matthew 18:11. All have sinned (Romans 3:10,23). All need a Savior, but not all have faith as God gives us free will (2Peter 2:10).

"Have we not all one Father? Hath not one God created us?" -- (Mal. 2:10) Duh. Yes of course.

If God be the Father of all men, will He do less for His children than earthly parents would do for theirs? No. God manifested Himself in the flesh (1Timothy 3:16, John1:14) to die on the cross for the sins of the world. The payment has been paid (past tense emphasized). Will all receive this free gift? For the 50th time: NO. Because God gives us all freewill (2Peter 2:10).

Is it true that God punishes us "for our profit, that we might be partakers of his holiness?" -- (Heb. 12:11) Yes----the key word: "...we..."   Who is we? Are those only believers? Yes.

Would endless punishment be for our profit?

Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.   For unbelievers: yes. Believers are completely forgiven of all sins and therefore are not punished for they never see death.
Would endless punishment "yield the peaceable fruits of righteousness unto them who are exercised thereby?" Punishment does not make anyone righteous nor can punishment pay the penalty of sin. Show me one verse in the bible that teaches this. Only the blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all unrighteousness. Do all accept this? NO. Therefore, they choose damnation.

Is there an afterward to eternity? -- (Heb. 7:14) No. Eternity is infinite. You yourself believe this also by quoting Psalms 102:27.

Can any doctrine be too good to be true? Yes. Scripture repeatedly warns against false teachers and those with itching ears.

Will God contend forever and be always wroth? -- (Isa. 62:16) No. That is why sin is burned at judgment.

Will the Lord cast off forever? -- (Lam. 3:31-33) Context of the verse of chapter 3 is entirely written for those that belong to the LORD. Those that die apart from Him will die in their sins (John 8:24).

Can he be a Christian who worships the Lord through fear of the devil? The power of death has no dominion over a believer once he/she has accepted Christ, because Christ has already risen!

Can he be a Christian who affirms that if he believed in the salvation of all men, he would not worship God? He is not a Christian. Quite simple. Because of several reasons: salvation of all would require that hell is temporary. However, this dilemma also makes God temporary and the resurrected body also temporary. God is not temporary, God is eternal. When one worships, one must worship Him in spirit and in truth or your worship is in vain(John 4:24). So, no one has eternal life, for all will inherit a temporary body. The attributes of hell and the attributes of God in regards to 'aion' are identical. A paradox is created when one attempts to teach universalism. It is impossible.

Can he be a Christian who inquires, "if all men are to be saved, what use is there in being virtuous?" No, he is not a Christian. Christ taught the remission and forgiveness of sins, repentance of one's sins and believing in your heart that Jesus is LORD. Then believing in your heart that He rose from the dead. Because of several reasons: salvation of all would require that hell is temporary. However, this dilemma also makes God temporary and the resurrected body also temporary. God is not temporary, God is eternal. When one worships, one must worship Him in spirit and in truth or your worship is in vain(John 4:24). So, no one has eternal life, for all will inherit a temporary body. The attributes of hell and the attributes of God in regards to 'aion' are identical. A paradox is created when one attempts to teach universalism. It is impossible.

Some persons say, that if they did not believe in endless punishment, they would take their fill of sin. How much sin would it take to fill a Christian? A Christian cannot die spiritually from sin, but will suffer the consequences of sin. An unbeliever suffers eternal separation as well as suffering from the consequences of sin. Sin causes death and separation from God, also the pleasure of sin only lasts for a season. How long is this season? Proverbs 27:1 Boast not thyself of to morrow; for thou knowest not what a day may bring forth. Isaiah 55:6 Seek ye the LORD while he may be found, call ye upon him while he is near:

If "the goodness of God leadeth to repentance," why should His eternal wrath be preached to sinners? Only to those who will accept this free gift of salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9). Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

If "the goodness of God leadeth to repentance," why should it not be supposed that repentance leadeth to the goodness of God? How can one repent without first knowing God? That is utterly ridiculous and nowhere taught in scripture. God gives everyone ever created, the knowledge and understanding of Him(Romans 1:20). That is why all creation has no excuse. God will give anyone faith in Him if they ask for forgiveness of their sins. Not all will ask. Some are self-willed(2Peter 2:10).

If "the goodness of God leadeth to repentance," are not the impenitent the objects of His goodness? Yes, absolutely! God gives everyone ever created, the knowledge and understanding of Him(Romans 1:20). That is why all creation has no excuse. God will give anyone faith in Him if they ask for forgiveness of their sins. Not all will ask. Some are self-willed(2Peter 2:10).

Is not the goodness of God co-extensive and co-eternal with His wisdom and power? Yes.

As the wisdom of God can never change to folly, nor His power to weakness, will His goodness ever change to hatred? No. Because God hates sin. God has never changed from all eternity nor will He ever change from hating sin. However, mankind chooses to sin for they are self-willed(2Peter2:10).

Can Deity be universally and eternally good, if endless misery be true for a single soul? Yes and already answered in questions #2, #3, #7, #10, and countless other times.

If all men deserve endless punishment, would it not be right for God to inflict it? All unbelievers deserve endless punishment. Believers DO deserve endless punishment, but by the grace of God, we are saved from His wrath by believing in Him (John 3:16-18). Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?

"Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?" Yes.

If it would be right for God to punish all men eternally, would it not be wrong for Him hot to do it? If Jesus Christ did not die on the cross for our sins then your answer is yes, because it would be a sin for God not to punish sin. That is a false balance and unjust.

As the infliction of endless misery would be returning evil for evil, would it be right for Deity to inflict it? Judging sin for what it is, is not evil. It is righteous judgment. God is returning righteous judgment unto evil. The wages of sin is death(Romans 6:23) and God warns us.

If the return of evil for evil be right in Deity, would it not be equally right in man? Man is incapable of doing anything good in the eyes of God. Mans righteousness are as dirty filthy rags (Isaiah 64:6).

As "fear hath torment," and true religion is happiness, can fear produce true religion? Scripture no where teaches this. Knowing, believing and following JESUS is true happiness.

James 1:26 If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion [is] vain.

James 1:27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, [and] to keep himself unspotted from the world.
As "perfect love casteth out fear," will not fear cast out perfect love? No. Perfect love is an attribute of God. There is no counsel against the LORD, nor power against Him. Fear is not an attribute of God, for it is of satan.

Can fear imbue the soul with perfect love? No.

Must not they who "believe and tremble," be possessed of the faith of devils? James 2:19 says that demons do believe and tremble, but you are forgetting that everything God made in the heavens and the earth was all good (Genesis 1:31). 1/3 of heaven fell with lucifer by his own deception of lies. lucifer and his angels WERE in heaven, they have seen the glory of God face-to-face. So of course they believe in God---they saw Him. They rejected God however, for they left their first estate(2Peter2:4). This does not negate believing in Jesus Christ.

Does the belief of endless misery cause the believer to "rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory?" -- (1 Pet. 1:8) Yes! Isaiah 14:16. For death, pain, crying, sorrow will no longer be remembered nor exist in heaven after satan is cast in the lake of fire.(Revelation 21:4).

Can a belief of any thing short of universal salvation, fill the soul with "joy and peace?" Already answered in question #210.

Will not the devil and all his works be destroyed? -- (Heb. 2:14; 1 John 3:8) Yes and the proof is in Revelation 21:4-10 I might add.

Will not death, the last enemy, be swallowed up in victory and destroyed? -- (Isa. 25:6-8; 1 Cor. 15:26-54) Don't you believe Revelation 21:4? Or do you think that God is pulling your leg!?

Original article found at: http://www.1john57.com/213refutations.htm